Emails to a Mormon (somewhat borrowed title) - Part 4

Casey,

I surely do understand your point. But, for those of us that read the bible, I'm sure there can be different meaning to different people behind what Isaiah said. For me, it's telling us that there will be no gods worshipped besides me. And, I believe that Joseph Smith is saying that we do believe in their godhood, forgive me for any mistake on the Holy Spirit and his godhood, but I'm still learning. But, we do not worship any other god besides "Yahweh", if you will. We only worship one god; follow the teachings of God and the Son, Jesus; and listen to the promptings of the Holy Spirit. Again, I do appreciate you bringing up that point. It put me into thought! Haha! Hope to here soon from you! -Danny

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My reply:

Hello again Danny,

Thanks again for the quick reply.

You said, "I surely do understand your point. But, for those of us that read the bible, I'm sure there can be different meaning to different people behind what Isaiah said. For me, it's telling us that there will be no gods worshipped besides me."

When the Holy Ghost inspired Isaiah's writings (as well as all of Scripture) He did so guiding the words of Isaiah. The Holy Ghost used men to communicate to men, and yet the Scriptures say exactly what God wanted them to say - for the Holy Ghost carried men along as they wrote (2 Peter 1:19-21). So when you said that the Scriptures can have different meanings for each individual, do you believe that Isaiah 43:10 has more than one meaning? Or just the interpretation that you offered?

And if you argue that Isaiah 43:10 teaches that you only worship three gods, though one in purpose, could Isaiah have also meant that there is only one true god? Wouldn't it be a contradiction for this text to mean that there is only one true god (as I believe) AND many gods (as you believe)?

I believe that to properly understand the Scriptures one must apply sound rules of exegesis - "exegesis" being the rules used when reading literature. Exegesis involves grammar, syntax, the context of a passage, it considers the author's purpose in writing, even the original languages a text was written in (Hebrew, Aramaic and Greek for the Bible).

The purpose of exegesis is to draw the meaning from the text.

I have provided a brief exegesis in my previous email. I believe that the Bible is consistent with itself, especially that there is only one true god.

So when Isaiah 43:10 declares that there were no gods formed before Yahweh, and no gods formed after him, what else could that mean? Notice what the text does not say: "no gods were formed before me [that you are to worship], and no gods were formed after me [that you are to worship]." The text just doesn't say that. You are reading your interpretation into the text. That is not exegesis =)

I look forward to your response.

Casey Ryan
AOMin