What if Christ died for all the sins of all?
I received an AOMin email from “Dennis” who offers an answer to the following question posed by John Owen: “If Christ died for all the sins of all, then why are not all men free from the punishment due unto their sins?”
Dennis provided the following response to Owen’s question: Christ said one sin was unforgivable, therefore it follows He did not die for that one sin. So a true picture is that Christ died for all men, for all sins, except one. That one sin will exclude a man from Heaven should he commit it. Only unbelievers can commit this sin since it is denying the witness of the Spirit through the Word that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of the living God. A sinner will pay forever for this one kind of sins, since even one seemingly insignificant sin requires payment via the death of the transgressor. Since God's holiness demands full payment for every sin and a sinner can only pay for one with his soul, all other sins of unbelievers are paid for in the blood of Jesus. Otherwise, God will be short-changed in His accounts requiring full payment. By believing in Christ, the sinner is fully forgiven and removed from the danger of committing the unpardonable sin. This is security forever. Matthew 12:31-32 (King James Version).
Here is my response to this gentleman: You appear to misapprehend John Owen’s question: If Christ died for all the sins of all, then why are sinners still punished for their sins? Your response provides no interaction with the scenario that John Owen is discussing. You write of an entirely different scenario, in which Christ died for every sin but one. Therefore you have not answered John Owen’s question.
In Christ,
Casey Ryan
AOMin
posted by rustypth @ 7:00 AM
4 comments
4 Comments:
Does Dennis' reasoning sound almost Roman Catholic to you?
This reasoning seems to go against the passages speaking of the perfection of Christ's sacrifice. I would be interested in knowing if he believes those who come to Christ have committed this sin. If so, to whom is this sin imputed to? How is this sin paid for?
Also, if he defines the sin as "dying without Christ" then technically the person does not commit that sin until his death. Then you have unbelievers running around who are not held responsible for their sin (since it has been paid for).
This reasoning doesn't really fit with the theology of "the Great Exchange"
Besides, Paul over and over again calls unbelievers idolaters, drunkards, thieves, homosexuals. If those sins were atoned for on the cross, then why are they called that? And why are men judged according to their deeds on the last day?
marie:
I'm hoping some of these issues come up in our future exchanges =)
But it sounds like you're ready to go. I'll definitely keep you updated
and marie: I have GOT to add you to my blogroll. hopefully now i'll remember =)
"Christ said one sin was unforgivable, therefore it follows He did not die for that one sin. So a true picture is that Christ died for all men, for all sins, except one."
Uh, yeah. That just "follows."
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